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Why Time Skip?
The Winter’s Tale is the only play we’ve read (and perhaps the only play Shakespeare has written?) that takes up a period of 16 years. The importance of time in the play is obvious and I think multiple factors contributed to why Shakespeare decided to implement the usage of a time skip after act III. Below are just some of my thoughts as to why Shakespeare used the time skip as well as scenes/lines in the play that highlighted the significance of time.
1. Polixenes could’ve been staying at Leontes’s kingdom for 9 days, 9 weeks, 9 years but Shakespeare intentionally uses 9 months, “nine changes of the watery star” (1.2.1), to show the possibility that Hermione’s pregnancy is somehow caused by him (although it’s not). In this case, time plays a negative role in arousing Leontes’s suspicions about Polixenes and Hermione’s relationship.
2. By the time The Winter’s Tale was released, Shakespeare had already a done so many different plays. Perhaps he knew he was near the end of his career and reflected on what he had accomplished up till now. He might have realized the importance of time and how fleeting it was (the time between The Comedy of Errors, his first written play, and The Winter’s Tale is roughly around 16 years). Maybe at this point, Shakespeare also wanted to try something he had not done before in his previous plays and therefore went with a time skip.
3. The mass production of the watch: I remember Professor Berggren mentioned in class that more and more people at this time were getting watches. At first you had to be very wealthy and privileged to get your hands on one but by the early 1600s, it was more widespread than ever before. The idea of time ticking away must have played a role into why Shakespeare thought of speeding time up in The Winter’s Tale.
Why do you think Shakespeare used a time skip? Were there any other interesting moments in the play that stuck out to you in regards to time?
Time in The Winter’s Tale
As we enter Act IV of the play, we get something that’s very reminiscent of the Prologue in both Henry V & Troilus and Cressida. This one seemed more like the Prologue in Henry V, as it is asking for the audience’s suspension of disbelief and is somewhat apologizing to the audience for something that may seem jarring or confusing. The Prologue here is called simply “Time”, leading me to wonder how Shakespeare would have costumed the man playing this role. In one of the essays in the back of our Signet edition, Sylvan Barnet claims that in one production, the man who played the bear in 3.3 came out again at this time and revealed himself to be Time.
I thought the use of Time here as a personification was very smart on Shakespeare’s part; there are very few Shakespearean plays in which he has a passage of time like this, and therefore the audience would not be expecting it, and may have had a hard time if all of a sudden Perdita was onstage as a teenager with no explanation. I took a screenplay writing class a few semesters ago in which we spent a long time (no pun intended) on this issue of time passage. You can show a clock speeding up, you can show the seasons changing, you can show someone rapidly aging – but that’s all on camera. Showing time passage onstage is a very tricky matter and I think the use of Time here works well.
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Polixenes’ Repressed Feelings
Perdita has grown up to become a beautiful young lady and she and the Prince of Bohemia, Florizel, have fallen in love with each other. He secretly visits her in disguise at the Shepherd’s cottage with who they both believe is her real father. Although Polixenes (Florizel’s father and King of Bohemia) is worried about his son, he over reacts just a little bit when he breaks up the young lovebirds’ engagement. He plans to have the Shepherd hanged and Perdita’s pretty face “scratched with briers and made More homely than thy state” (4.4.429-430). Although Polixenes eventually changes his mind, this was still a harsh punishment for finding out about his son’s almost-wedding with a beautiful young girl.
It is almost as if Polixenes has repressed feelings from his lost friendship with Leontes. His anger and resentment has stimulated around his son for marrying a fellow civilian of no royal blood. When was Polixenes ever like this? The audience has always known him to be kind and gentle and warming. After all, he spent nine months in his best friend’s kingdom when he himself had a country to attend to. Maybe he has hidden feelings about Leontes for treating him and suspecting him of sleeping with his wife. Maybe he has grown to resent him for that. Polixenes knew he never did any wrong yet Leontes was stubborn and believed his own suspicions. Maybe the way Polixenes treated Florizel was mirroring what Leontes did to Hermione, even though Polixenes was not there for her trial. Could old friends have similar characteristics? They did grow up together, did they not?
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Lady Macbeth
What I found most interesting as Lady Macbeth is that she keeps prodding her husband to “be a man”. In some ways, Lady Macbeth seems to be having so much more courage than her husband. However, we see that Lady Macbeth probably would not have been able to murder King Duncan herself, as she mentions how he looks too much like her father. I just thought it was humorous how she keeps telling Macbeth to be a man. It just brings me to question the roles that each of them are playing and how much influence Lady Macbeth has over her husband. For some reason I feel as if she really doesn’t have the influence over her husband. She also lacks the mental capability to keep living after murdering the King. Also, if Macbeth and Lady Macbeth switched genders, would the murder and ascendancy to the throne been ever more possible? And, who really is wearing the pants?
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Macbeth: Victim of Fate?
I think Macbeth’s destiny was out of his control. The interference of fate, in the form of the witches, is what caused his inevitable downfall. Macbeth didn’t exhibit any ambition to usurp the throne until he heard the prophecy. Once the idea was placed inside his head, however, it consumed him. He was extremely indecisive on what course of action to take, and rationalized against doing anything several times. His wife really forced it upon him, using tactics such as questioning his manhood and assuring his success.
Macbeth is a victim of his options. Recall, Macbeth was a religious man. Imagine you were told by a prophetic visionary (whether its angelic or demonic is irrelevant, as long as you believed in it) that you would come across immense wealth.; Immediately, you’d start looking left and right for the first opportunity to make this vision true. It’s only a natural response. Macbeth was already aware Malcolm was the next heir to the throne, so he could infer that his kingship had to be seized. When the opportunity to murder Duncan arose, he would believe it was his destiny.
Also, take his initial character into question. He was a brilliant warrior, known for brutally slaughtering his opponents. Yet he shook with fright he had to murder whom he perceived an innocent man, and inevitably lost his grip on sanity as a result. That is not the appropriate characterization of the ruthless man Macbeth became by the end of the play. All of his subsequent murders and actions were a result him being trapped on a slippery slope. Towards the end of the play Macbeth laments on the futility of life. He is still able to regret his actions. He suffered greatly; losing his wife, reputation, power, and everything that once formed his identity
Although Macbeth is very intelligent and appeared to have thought through his plan, I don’t believe he really did. His mind was completely focused on the task at hand – he kept rationalizing whether or not to kill the King. The fact that he didn’t consider he had no children to be heir to the throne until AFTER he murdered Duncan attests to that. I doubt he considered the grand scheme of his actions. He acted out of character by jumping the gun and murdering the King due to a perceived urgency of time, and was unable to really think things through. It didn’t help that he had his wife was emasculating him every step of the way. In my opinion, the destiny was forced upon Macbeth. How much blame you can put on the man for giving into tantalizing temptation, the original sin of man?
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Group 7 – Macbeth Scene Study
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KUJzFdcuIyE
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=332yOI50TBg
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Malcolm: Fit to rule?
We discussed the strange scene between Malcolm and Macduff in which Malcolm says he is full of vices that would make him an unfit king. After Macduff laments for Scotland, saying that Malcolm will not be much better than Macbeth is, Malcolm reverses his words, saying that he was just testing Macduff to see if he is loyal and true.
But for me, there was a second way of reading this scene. When Malcolm backtracks and says he was making this up, he says “here abjure the blames and taints I laid upon myself.” This can definitely read as something I’m sure we’ve all seen before – someone laughing and scoffing at what was just said “Haha, I can’t believe you fell for that, I was totally joking” – just to save face.
So is Malcolm really going to be all that much better than Macbeth? Even if he was lying about his vices, what he says afterwards is still a bit of a concern – he says he’s never been with a woman, these words were his first ever lies, and I could never go behind someone’s back and do anything devilish. But when one assumes power, they have to have the backbone to stand up to those who will be against them – there is no ruler that is universally loved. So either this new King of Scotland is actually a vice-ridden, greedy sex addict who is now going to hide all of those vices until he inevitably can no longer, or he is a naive, easily manipulated child.
Violence = Manhood?
Most of us have read enough of “Macbeth” by now to know that violence is a central part of the play. What I found really interesting is Shakespeare’s emphasis on the connection between violence and manhood.
Right from the beginning, before Macbeth even shows up on stage, he is described by King Duncan as “valiant” and a “worthy gentleman” (1.2.23) for killing enemy soldiers in a ruthless, grotesque fashion. This part sets the tone for the rest of the play but the scene where Lady Macbeth questions Macbeth’s manliness (1.7.35-44) is what really captures my attention. After Macbeth decides against murdering his king, Lady Macbeth reasons with him as to why he should do it by attacking his manhood. According to Lady Macbeth, not being able to commit the violent crime means there are problems with his innate, male self. She even attacks Macbeth’s ability to make love.
I understand Lady Macbeth’s argument and her motives for saying such things. Do you agree that Macbeth would have been less of a man if he had not gone through with his promise to murder King Duncan? Which takes more courage to do — standing by your words or admitting that you are wrong and taking a step back?
Macbeth
I thought it was very interesting when the Professor introduced the idea that Macbeth could have had PTSD. It raised a stimulating argument that I had never thought about before. However, I don’t necessarily agree. Macbeth, in my opinion, is a character that thought things over before actually putting his plans into action. He did begin to lose his sanity after he killed.
This quick paced play, covers many different tragedies in a matter of acts. Some of the murders were unexpected and unnecessary. I believe Macbeth and Lady Macbeth got what they deserved in the end. Lady Macbeth took her own life and Macbeth was killed by Macduff.
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Shakespeare and Homer
Shakespeare’s homage to Homer and even Chaucer could be related to today’s Hollywood (even though Shakespeare doesn’t sell out). He took a very famous work of literature and adapted it into a screen play. He took creative license and created and original story line through a classic story.
One of the aspects of the original that I missed during the adaptation was the gods of Olympus. During the Iliad they were a very strong influencing force throughout the epic poem. It would have been nice to see how Shakespeare would have adapted the gods into his play.
It was nice to see Shakespeare’s version of Chaucer’s Troilus and Criseyde. During Act 5 iii, when Hector was departing to war this scene mirrors Book 22 of the Iliad. In the Iliad he was being persuaded by his parents. The scene is very emotional and very intense. In the play Hector is being asked by many people and it is not as intense.
There were things that I would have liked to have seen in the play from the original but that being said I still enjoyed it.
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