The declaration of the right of man and of the citizen is one of the most important steps achieved in the purpose of the French revolution. However, I found the tittle of the declaration kind of bold. Why does it have to be the “the Right of men and of the Citizen” and not the right of the French man and of the French Citizens”? It is true that back in the 18th century, the world looked at France as the place of the best civilization. The French art and music were highly admired by the world. The declaration was constituted in consequence of the French people’s revolt, but not the revolt of the rest of the world. Why does the declaration of the right have to be universal and to be applied to the rest of the world? And why aren’t the twenty seven amendments of the American constitution applied to everybody else?
The declaration was declared universally, but its benefits were only in favor of a portion of the world. France kept oppressing its African colonies and sucked out their properties and resources. According the first article of the declaration, France should have had attribute independence to all of its colonies. Yet these colonies had to shed blood for their freedom two hundred years later. Nowadays, is the declaration of the right of man and of the citizen really applied as it is supposed to be?
